One more question

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Fretwell@aol.com wrote:
> As I see it, this discussion started out as a matter of WHEN God manifested
> Himself in the Son.
> 
> Was it in the MANGER, or was it in the RIVER JORDAN when the HEAVENS WERE
> OPENED TO HIM, and the SPIRIT DESCENDED AS DOVE AND SAT UPON HIM?
> 
> I know what my answer is.  But, obviously many of you do not know for
> yourself when this happened.
> 
> fretwell

 I caught that discussion awhile back, but didn't know this was a
continuation. I was responding to the previous post. I never did weigh
in on that one, so I guess I will now.
 I saw one quote of "this day have I begotten you", used to say that the
"man" Christ Jesus was not "begotten" until after his resurrection. But,
scripturally, he was "begotten" when the Holy Ghost overshadowed Mary.
 We can discuss his "self-actualization" process, of being driven into
the wilderness to be tempted by th devil, and then coming out "in the
power of the spirit", but the "manifestation" term is used Biblically,
as to the "showing" of the spirit. This "manifestation was acknowledged
at different times to different individuals, just as it is today.
 If the question is, "when was God *IN* the son"?, the answer is from
the time the Holy Ghost overshadowed a virgin, according to both Matthew
ch.1 and Luke ch.1.