QUESTIONS ON TONGUES

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>1.  Do all TRUE believers in Christ speak in unknown tongues (in a personal
>prayer language to God for the purpose of edification and fellowship with
>God) on a consistent, if not daily, basis?

i think it may be possible not to, but man does it sure help ALOT!

>2.  Do some TRUE born-again believers speak in unknown tongues ONLY
>ONCE---upon the initial receipt of the gift of the Holy Ghost?

Apparently, yes. Paul said, "Do all speak in tongues?". So even if we demand
the new birth to mean doing it at least once, we can argue it obviously is
not necessary for salvation to continue, although it is wise to do so as
much as possible, for Paul also said, "I thank my God I speak in tongues
more than you all".

>3.  Since 1 Corinthians 12 teaches on the extra-ordinary 9 GIFTS of the
>Holy Ghost,  how should one interpret the rhetorical question in 1 Cor
>12:30, "Do all speak in tongues?" ?

Well, maybe the UPC should get Chapter 11 down before worrying about #12!

>3.  If a person who has followed the complete plan of salvation (Acts 2:38
>etc) and has lived for God for any length of time BACKSLIDES---that is,
>turns away from God and lives a CARNEL life, is it a sign that he TRULY
>repents if he "prays through" to God, evidenced by speaking in other
>tongues?

Only if its truly of God I would think.

>4.  If speaking in tongues is the initial evidence that one has received
>the Holy Ghost, is speaking in tongues on a consistent basis a sign that
>one STILL HAS the Holy Ghost?

Only if its genuine.

>5.  If answering NO to question 4:  How does one ASSURE himself that he
>STILL HAS the Holy Ghost?  Can one LOSE the Holy Ghost?  Is LOSING the Holy
>Ghost the same as LOSING OUT on salvation?  OR is it true that ONCE one is
>saved, he is ALWAYS saved?

Of course you can be lost and be a foolish virgin with no oil in your lamp.

>There is an ever-increasing belief going throughout our churches that SOME
>(logically extended to MOST) people only speak in tongues when they
>initially receive the gift of the Holy Ghost...NEVER THEREAFTER!   What
>this doctrine will eventually bring is a condition in which virtually NO
>ONE will speak in tongues except those who have (supposedly) received the
>GIFT OF TONGUES! Which may be very few.

That is the UPC doctrine, that baptism and the ongoing gift of tongues are
not the same. But why is tongues more common (90%) than the other gifts?

>[Note:  "SOME logically extended to MOST" because if one believes that a
>person ONLY speaks in tongues upon the initial receipt of the Holy Ghost,
>then ANYONE who does speak in tongues AFTER receiving the initial
>experience MUST have the unique GIFT OF TONGUES as stated in 1 Cor 12, 14.]

Right. Good point. What about the ability to translate other peoples tongues
on the fly? Is that possible?
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