EGO EIMI, part II (was Re: Re: Two wills or One will?)

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In response to Mike Murphy's query, I previously listed four possible 
connotations of ego eimi (I Am) in ancient greek, as noted by Rudolf 
Bultmann.  Unfortunately, lack of time prevented me from more fully 
exploring it's use and implications by Jesus in the Gospel of John.

First, it's important to note that the meaning of ego eimi in the Bible 
ranges from the banal (the blind man of John 9) to the sacred (the I AM of 
the OT, Ex. 3:14, etc.). One meaning does not necessarily "fit all".  Any 
phrase's meaning is *determined by context*; not by *one* stock definition, 
forced into every context. I don't think this should be too difficult to 
grasp. In our own language, consider the range of possibilities in the 
phrase, "SHE'S DIVINE".  This phrase could refer to several different 
things depending on the context in which it used.  It could have a somewhat 
"secular" import, as in, "she's supremely good". (As a matter of fact, I 
did have a friend in church who when asked how he was doing, would 
sometimes respond, "I'm just divine!" - much to the amusement of our 
assistant pastor.) Or it could simply refer to a woman's first name.  And 
of course, (although it's hard to conceive of in our secularized society) 
the phrase could denote the deity of a goddess.  There are probably other 
more subtle possibilities, but anyhow, you get the idea.

Ego eimi had a far wider semantic range than my example.  The problem is 
that sometimes when Jesus uses the phrase in John (and sometimes in the 
Synoptics) it is not always clear as to what *one* meaning he is implying. 
 There is a reason for this which I will get to later, but first, let's 
consider another "I Am" scripture, in John 8:58: "...before Abraham was, 
EGO EIMI".  Again, is there is any doubt as to the implications of this 
scripture?  Jesus clearly refers to himself as the I Am of the OT!  Not 
ambiguously, "I am who I say I am".  His hearers knew exactly what he was 
implying, for they were picking up stones to kill him!  It wasn't 
*blasphemy* per-se to proclaim a messianic identity.  Judaism had seen many 
self-proclaimed "messiahs" come and go. Nor was it *blasphemy* to consider 
oneself a "son of God", at least in the broader sense of the term. i.e. 
John 8:41, Jesus' protagonists considered themselves as such.  But, it 
*was* blasphemy to use the "name" of God in the way that he did - claiming 
it for Himself!!! 

I'll have to conclude this later, I'm already late for my train!

Grace to you,

Charles Ormsbee