God is like...
"Tyler G. Nally" (tnally@csci.csc.com)
Fri, 8 Dec 1995 14:33:39 -0600 (CST)
* >Well, lets look at Rev 1:1,2: (from the www bible gateway)
* >
* >1 The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave unto him, to shew unto
* > his servants things which must shortly come to pass; and he sent and
* > signified it by his angel unto his servant John:
* >
* > (the "him" to whom the revelation of Jesus Christ was given is
* > the author of the Book, "the servant John" - God gave the revelation
* > to John)
*
* Pronouns replace proper nouns; not the other way around. He can't use "he"
* or "she" when no subject has been introduced. I think you're trying too hard!
* If you read this sentence like any other normal sentence, you would find it
* much easier to understand.
I see the "which God gave unto him" as a prepositional phrase that as
spoken underneath your breath like a phrase inside of parenthesis. It
could equally as well read:
1 The Revelation of Jesus Christ to shew unto his servants things
which must shortly come to pass; and he sent and signified it by his
angel unto his servant John:
It means the same thing with or without the prepositional phrase.
If anything it might make it a little clearer by now seeing that the
angel was sent to John to bring it to him by the remainder of the
sentence after the semicolon.
I think that also (and I'm no grammarian by any stretch, in fact I
don't normally care for englash and reading .... :( ) the subject of
verse 1 is "Revelation of Jesus Christ". Not the "Revelation" to Jesus
Christ.
In the whole book of Revelation, I see nowhere where Jesus received
a revelation of God. To me, that's like me telling me about myself
and then being surprised at what I've told myself.
That fact is the book is about "Revealing Jesus". God gave John
this "revelation" on the Lords day when he was in the spirit.
He was shewn the revelation and was told to write it down so that
others can see Jesus revealed. After all when you've seen Jesus,
you've seen the FATHER.
Bro. Tyler
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