John 6:62

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-----Original Message-----
From: KATHLEEN DIMICK <kdimick@colsa.com>
To: higher-fire@prairienet.org <higher-fire@prairienet.org>
Date: Thursday, February 26, 1998 8:19 PM
Subject: Re: John 6:62


>I must say that this topic is definitely a ponderable one.  One thing that
>I feel is needful is an understanding of Jesus' meaning (as opposed to our
>interpretation) of the terms "Son of Man" and "Son of God
>
>"The dilemma then, is how could Jesus Himself ask "what if you see 'my
>personhood' (so to speak) return to heaven where I was before?"
>
>If the term "Son of Man" *does not * indicate Jesus' personhood, then this
>particular dilemma falls apart.


John 3:13  And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came
down from heaven, even the Son of Man WHICH IS IN HEAVEN.

Now that's a powerful verse concerning this topic and the statements from
my Sis.'s post up there. How could the "man" be both in heaven and on earth
at the same time? Answer: impossible(and please don't say with God all
things
are possible, that's out of context for something like this, the Word itself
tells
us of the laws of this earth that man{or physical, terrestrial beings} are
bound
by, which Jesus "manhood" was also bound by). It was/is "physically"
impossible
for the "man" Jesus to be in heaven and on earth at precisely the same time,
thus this particular dilemma falls apart. John 3:13 shoots a big hole in the
theology of those who claim that "Son of Man" is always a direct reference
to
Jesus' humanity "only"(which I was once guilty of, forgive my prior
ignorance).

Hope this helps.

In Jesus' Name,
Bro. Daniel M. Westbrook, Sr.