John 6:62

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I must say that this topic is definitely a ponderable one.  One thing that
I feel is needful is an understanding of Jesus' meaning (as opposed to our
interpretation) of the terms "Son of Man" and "Son of God".  IOW, how did
Jesus in the context of His Hebrew/Jewish cultural and religious
understanding, view these terms?  What did He mean when He used them?  Did
it really signify His 'personhood'? If it did then that would lend
credibility to the supposition that:

"The dilemma then, is how could Jesus Himself ask "what if you see 'my
personhood' (so to speak) return to heaven where I was before?"  

If the term "Son of Man" *does not * indicate Jesus' personhood, then this
particular dilemma falls apart.  That is to say, it would mean Jesus was
not saying "what if you see 'my personhood' return to heaven where I was
before?"  

So, it behooves us to examine what the term "Son of Man" truly means.  When
we understand what exactly Jesus meant by the term, we can better interpret
what He meant by the question.

Kathy Dimick
Falkville, Alabama
kdimick@colsa.com
kedimick@hotmail.com
http://members.tripod.com/~coffeepleaz/index.html

"For to me to live is Christ"