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Re: [PROG] E_PROPNF v. E_VERBNF
> Suppose there an object #A defines a property .example and a verb :example(),
> and suppose #B is a child of #A. Then although #B inherits both of these from
> #A,
>
> ;property_info(#B, "example")
> => okay
>
> ;verb_info(#B, "example")
> => E_VERBNF (assuming that #B doesn't itself define a verb :example() )
>
> Shouldn't both of these return errors, or else both be okay? I know that
> inheritance has no effect on the rwxd flags of a verb, while an inherited
> property can have different rwc values than its parent's property, but still,
> it seems a little inconsistent....
The properties are actually passed down to the children. However, the
verbs are not... Its pointless and a waste of space. The verb is called
on the ancestor which has that verb.
For example, if I'm a $wiz, the property .email_address is on my object,
as it is with and object that is a descendant of $player. But, the verb
@who is _not_ on me, it is just called from $player.
Get it?
Joe
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